rcukierkorn rcukierkorn

02-05-2017
Mathematics

contestada

Yes or No? The integral of a to b f(x)dx is the area bounded by the graph of f, the x-axis and the lines x=a and x=b.

Respuesta :

LammettHash LammettHash

02-05-2017

No, in general this is not the case. It's only true if [tex]f(x)>0[/tex] for [tex]a<x<b[/tex]. Otherwise the definite integral gives the *signed* area, which could be negative or even 0.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What is the answer I need help

How is andy affected by the conflict that neto experiences?he does not believe neto but decides to talk to the principal anyway. He sympathizes with neto and de

A box of 24 spiral notebooks cost $3.60. What s the cost of 1 notebook?

Red lights on a traffic light have a frequency of 4.3 X 10^15 Hz. What is the red light’s wavelength in meters? (Speed of light (c)= 3.00 X 10^8 m/s) A. 1.5 X

Need help on this please!

In 2010, Haiti was hit by a devastating earthquake, which registered at 7. 0 on the Richter scale. The largest recorded earthquake since 1900 occurred in 1960 i

how many soccer players should each team have on the field

simplify plzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz

which chemical engineer, physician, and nasa astronaut was the first black woman to travel to space?

A newspaper reports the following changes in the temperature of a city over 4 days: 3.24 degrees Celsius, -3 over 8 degrees Celsius, -0.15 degrees Celsius, 7 o